DIT 2014 WORKBOOK PDF

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Dit 2014 Workbook Pdf

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Diagnosis of major depressive disorder MDD requires five of the above symptoms. W h at are the sym ptom s of m ajor depression with atypical features? W h at medications w ork well for this? A t what stage o f change in overcoming his smoking habit is this man? W h a t neurotransmitter derangements are seen in patients with depression? A patient presents w ith hyperphagia. W h a t is the treatm ent for cluster headaches? Categorize each of the following antidepressants: W h a t are the m ost com m on causes o f seizures in young adults years?

W h at is the diagnosis. I - Tetracyclic -. End o f Session Q uiz 9. W h a t are the m ost common causes o f seizures in young adults years?

SSRIs 5. Which drugs should not be taken with SSR Is because of the risk of serotonin syndrome? W hat are the characteristic features of serotonin syndrome? W hat is the treatment for serotonin syndrome? W hat are the symptoms of serotonin withdrawal syndrome? W hich SSR Is are well known for causing this when stopped abruptly? W hat evaluation should take place prior to the initiation of T C A s in children?

Because TCA s can cause arrhythmias, the following should be performed: W hat are the symptoms of overdose with tricyclic antidepressants TCA s?

O ther Antidepressants W hat food substances should be avoided when taking M AOIs in order to avoid a tyram ine-induced hypertensive crisis? Foods that are spoiled, pickled, aged, smoked, fermented or marinated contain tyramine.

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The following foods should be avoided because of sufficient quantities of tyramine to be problematic while on MAOIs: In what group of patients is bupropion W ellbutrin contraindicated?

Because of an increased risk of lowering the seizure threshold, bupropion should be avoided in patients with:. W h at are the indications for electroconvulsive therapy E C T? Psychotic depression Severe suicidality Depression with catatonic stupor Depression with food refusal leading to nutritional compromise Situations where a rapid antidepressant response is required e.

H ow long must a patient expect to take an SSRI before they see improvement in their depression? W hich antidepressant matches the following statements? W h at are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome? C T scan o f the head shows a crescent-shaped lesion. W h a t event most likely caused this lesion? A 2-year-old develops lethargy, hypoglycemia and abnormal LFTs approximately one week after being seen for a febrile U R I.

How is depression managed in patients with bipolar disorder? W h at are the potential side effects of lithium use in the treatm ent of bipolar disorder? W hat is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus caused by lithium toxicity? Adjustment Disorder 7. W hat are the diagnostic criteria for adjustment disorder? W hat is the difference between major depressive disorder and adjustment disorder with depressed mood?

W hat is the drug o f choice in the treatment o f bipolar disorder in a patient with renal failure? W h at is the most problematic congenital malformation associated with maternal lithium use? How long must hypomania symptoms or depressive symptoms be present to diagnose cyclothymia?

H ow does one differentiate between subarachnoid hemorrhage and a traumatic lumbar puncture as a cause o f bloody cerebrospinal fluid? W h ich spinal tracts convey the following information?

A patient is recovering in the IC U after suffering a subdural hematoma that occurred because o f a motor vehicle collision. The neurosurgery team performed a craniotomy and drain placement to evaluate the clot.

For the past few days the drainage in the collection bulb was serous. Now, however, the drainage is thick and yellow. W h a t is the likely cause o f this clinical picture?

How is acute stress disorder different than post-traumatic stress disorder P TSD? How long must anxiety and worry symptoms be present to diagnose a patient with generalized anxiety disorder? W h a t complication may arise from perform ing L P in a patient w ith elevated intracranial pressure?

W h a t are the key differences between them? Schizophrenia 4. W h at are the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia? Delusions irrational belief that cannot be changed by rational argument Hallucinations most common type is auditory Disorganized speech e.

W h at is the difference between each of the following disorders? Schizotypal personality disorder Schizophrenia Schizoaffective Schizoid personality disorder Schizophreniform Brief psychotic disorder.

W hat drugs are known to cause psychosis in patients? Antipsychotic Medications 8. W hat is the treatment? Acute dystonia torticollis in this case due to antipsychotics R x: W h at m ight you see on neuroim aging of a patient with schizophrenia? A patient previously diagnosed with schizophrenia arrives at the psych ER with a severe neck spasm that forces his head to be maintained in an unusual position. Categorize the following antipsychotics in the appropriate category as neuroleptics low.

W hat features characterize tardive dyskinesia that may develop from the use of high-potency typical neuroleptics? D V T prevention with heparin or enoxaparin. W h at is the treatm ent for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? W hat is the treatm ent for Parkinsonian symptoms that have developed from neuroleptic administration? W h at are the signs and symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? W h a t is the treatm ent for tardive dyskinesia? In what tim e frame would you expect to see Parkinsonian symptom side effects in a patient taking antipsychotics?

Lower fever with cooling blankets. For agitation. W h at is the drug category o f choice for the treatment o f the negative symptoms o f schizophrenia? Give examples o f negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

W hich neuroleptics are known for their extrapyramidal side effects? W h a t are the different treatments for acute dystonia. A m other w ho is frustrated w ith her child yells at her husband. W h ich defense mechanism is she displaying?

W h ich defense m echanism is a person displaying when she subconsciously pushes memories o f past abuse out o f her conscious mind? W h a t defense mechanism is she displaying? A wom an who witnessed a murder is able to calmly describe every gory detail. She is also wearing an excessive amount of lipstick. W h at personality disorder do you suspect in this patient? O n a subsequent visit. W hat personality disorder does this person have?

A year-old woman comes to your office wearing all black including a black miniskirt and black feather boa. W h at personality disorder does this person have? She explains that her former physician was the most evil creature with absolutely no redeeming qualities. A year-old woman comes to your office after becoming dissatisfied with her former physician.

A person demands only the best and most educated doctor in town. In w hich vitamins are alcoholics typically deficient? W h a t is the first-line treatm ent for acute otitis media?

W h a t is the m ost successful treatm ent for alcoholism? W h a t are the components o f the C A G E questionnaire? List the symptoms associated w ith the life-threatening condition delirium tremens D T. W h a t is the m ost serious side effect o f clozapine? W h a t is the drug o f choice for alcohol withdrawal? W hat treatm ents are effective in helping prevent relapse in recovering alcoholics? W hile he waits for the C T scan o f the head. H e tells you that the headaches always occur at around the same time.

A year-old man is seen in the E R w ith severe headache. W h a t are the major symptoms o f H untington disease? W hat medical conditions can cause severe depression? O n exam his pupils are unequal and his right eye is tearing. W h a t drugs can be used in the case o f hypertension in a patient with cocaine or amphetamine intoxication? W h at is the cause o f her weight loss?

End of Session Quiz 4. A patient is brought to the E R by police. A year-old slender woman presenting w ith recent weight loss is found to have erythem a o f her turbinates and nasal septum. W h at condition is this?

W hat disorder classically presents w ith the triad o f cognitive impairment. W h at is the treatment for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo BPPV?

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A patient with a history o f lithium use presents with copious amounts o f dilute urine. Gastrointestinal symptoms vomiting. Pain symptoms Sexual symptoms erectile dysfunction. W h a t somatoform disorder matches each o f the following descriptions? Unexplained loss o f sensory or motor function. W h a t is a major difference between factitious disorder and malingering? W h ich eating disorder can be treated effectively w ith SSRIs?

Categorize each o f the following antidepressants: Albuminocytologic dissociation increased protein in the CSF. W h a t disease th a t causes dem entia is also associated w ith visual hallucinations and frequent falls? A nurse pages you. W h a t disease that causes dementia is also associated w ith unpleasant behavioral and personality changes? She asks you to write for a benzodiazepine to sedate the patient. W h a t are the two most common causes o f dementia.

W h a t are key features o f delirium that differentiates it from dementia? W h a t do you propose instead and why? W hat other medications can be used in the treatment of A D H D in children who fail to respond to stimulants or atomoxetine? W hat are the common complications of A D H D stimulant medications. In which disease would you find atrophy o f the mammillary bodies? After a minor car accident. W h a t is the most common cause o f sensorineural hearing loss?

W h at is the most common cause o f conductive hearing loss? Tourette Syndrome 6. W hat therapeutic options are available for Tourette syndrome? W hat are some of the characteristic features of autism spectrum disorder? Repetitive behaviors Characterized by hostility. Loss of previously acquired purposeful hand skills between months Impairments in social interactions.

W hen treating a child suspected of having a learning disorder. W hich childhood psychiatric disorder matches each of the following statements? Females only. How is A D H D diagnosed? W h a t is the leading cause o f death in diabetics?

W h y m ust 3-blockers be used w ith caution in diabetics? W h a t is the m ost common complication o f recurrent otitis media? W h a t can cause hypoglycemia in a non-diabetic patient? W h a t is the treatm ent for neuroleptic m alignant syndrome?

W h a t lab test is used in diabetic patients to assess the adequacy o f glycemic control over the last three months? W h a t is the treatm ent for delirium tremens DTs? W hat anti-islet antibodies can be seen in patients with type I diabetes mellitus?

W hich of the oral agents used in the control of type 2 diabetes has the following characteristics: Lactic acidosis is a rare but worrisome side effect Most common side effect is hypoglycemia Oldest and cheapest of the oral agents Often used in combination with any of the other oral agents Also helps lower triglycerides and LDL cholesterol levels N ot safe in settings of C H F Should not be used in patients with elevated serum creatinine Should not be used in patients with inflammatory bowel disease Hepatic serum transaminase levels should be carefully monitored when using these agents Not associated with weight gain.

W h a t are the three reasons for involuntary psychiatric hospitalization? W h a t is the psychiatric condition in which a person travels a long distance.

W h at medications other than stimulants are used in the treatment o f A D H D? A type 2 diabetic has been well-controlled on a regimen o f metformin. W hich o f his medications would be most likely to cause hypoglycemia? W hat are the criteria for the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome? Diagnosis based on any three of the following: T insulin. Decreases G I absorption o f starch and disaccharides Stimulates insulin release Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis Increases tissue glucose uptake and improves insulin sensitivity Mimics the action o f GLP W hich diabetic medications should be avoided in patients w ith heart failure?

M atch the diabetes drug with its mechanism o f action: These episodes resolve quickly if he eats something. A n aphasic patient has difficulty producing words but understands everything you say.

W h at must be kept in m ind for a type 1 diabetic patient that plans to begin a strenuous exercise program? W h a t would you see on physical exam o f a patient that has a cholesteatoma? W h a t antidepressant is preferred in the treatment of depression w ith comorbid neuropathic pain? W h a t type o f aphasia does he most likely have? W hich type o f insulin is used in continuous infusion insulin pumps and in treatment o f DKA?

W hat are the necessary steps in the treatm ent of diabetic ketoacidosis?

W hat are the common causes of DKA? Usually due to excess glucagon. W h a t medication is used in the diagnosis o f symptomatic myasthenia gravis? W h a t are the m ost common causes o f seizures in children ages ? W h a t is the definitive treatm ent for an epidural or subdural hematoma? A year-old type 2 diabetic ran out o f his metformin a week ago.

W hat are the signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis? W h a t is the work-up for the underlying cause o f DKA? Based on this information. H e is lethargic. W hat are the treatm ent options for diabetic gastroparesis? W h ich antidiabetic agent is associated w ith lactic acidosis? How do we diagnose diabetic gastroparesis? W h a t is the cause o f muscle rigidity. W h a t medications are used in the treatm ent o f Tourette syndrome?

Besides retinopathy. W hat are the routine health maintenance recommendations for diabetics? W h a t is the treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy? W h a t is the treatment for peripheral neuropathy? H ow is diabetic gastroparesis diagnosed and treated? W h ich cranial nerve is responsible for each o f the following actions? D uring a yearly physical. H e also notes th at he has trouble driving at night and reading road signs.

Though the patient may have some presbyopia.

W h a t are the symptoms o f T C A overdose? W h at is the most likely cause? W hat is the treatment o f the most common cause o f hyperthyroidism? W hat thyroid abnormalities would you expect to find during pregnancy? In which o f the following hyper thyroid diseases is radioactive iodine most likely to result in hypothyroidism: Graves disease. A patient has exophthalmos.

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W h a t disorder is present in a teenager w ith a history o f theft. W h a t is the general treatm ent for DKA? Irregular margins Intranodal vascular pattern. W h a t serum lab abnormalities m ight you see in a patient with bacterial meningitis?

How should you follow up a FN A of a thyroid nodule? How do you manage a thyroid nodule? W h a t is the m ost common type o f thyroid cancer? W h a t are the major differences between de Quervain thyroiditis and H ashim oto thyroiditis? W h a t is the next step in the management o f a newly found thyroid nodule in a patient w ith hyperthyroidism? Treat as follows: W h a t important side effects are common to many o f the atypical antipsychotics?

W hat are the 2 most common causes of primary hyperparathyroidism?

W hat is the treatm ent for each? The 2 most common causes are parathyroid adenoma and parathyroid hyperplasia. W h a t are the most worrisome side effects o f the A D H D drug atomoxetine?

L-spine and forearm ql2m [86]. W hat is the treatm ent for hyperparathyroidism due to chronic renal disease? W h a t happens to phosphate in patients with hyperparathyroidism caused by renal disease?

Com pare P T H. P T H and phosphate? W h y m ight P T H be elevated in renal disease? Hyperprolactinemia 4.

W hat is the treatm ent for a prolactinoma? W h a t is the most likely cause o f galactorrhea. W hat are the symptoms of hyperprolactinemia? A patient comes to clinic w ith the complaint o f hearing loss and vertigo. Acrom egaly 6. W hat are the symptoms and signs of acromegaly? W hat tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis?

The average tim e frame from onset to diagnosis is 12 years. W hat is the treatm ent for acromegaly? W hat drugs are known for causing elevated prolactin levels?

W h at is the next step in the management o f a patient found to have an absent pituitary on M R I empty sella? W hat is the next step in the management o f a patient with hyperprolactinemia not due to an obvious drug cause?

W h a t complications can result from acromegaly? W hat is the most common presentation o f hyperprolactinemia? W h a t is the visual field deficit classically associated w ith prolactinoma?

W h a t are the electrolyte abnormalities found in hyperaldosteronism? No medical cause is found. A t w hat age do physicians begin to dose dexamethasone w ith or prior to the first dose o f antibiotics in cases o f suspected bacterial meningitis?

W h a t is the m ost common pituitary tumor. W h a t is the most specific lab finding in making the diagnosis o f primary hyperaldosteronism? A patient s work-up reveals a high plasma aldosterone concentration and low plasma renin activity. D H E A -S and testosterone. A year-old woman has a left arm paralysis after her boyfriend dies in a car crash. A year-old man has 4 months o f social withdrawal. W h a t is the pattern o f vision loss in glaucoma vs. W h a t is the diagnosis o f this patient?

A patient w ith elevated blood pressure. W hat is the likely condition o f a female infant with virilization o f the genitalia and hypotension? W hat effect would giving a 3-blocker have on this patient? W h at is the first-line treatment for moderate hypercalcemia? His speech is frequently tangential and incoherent. W h a t serum lab abnormality would you see in 17a-hydroxylase deficiency and in 21a-hydroxylase deficiency?

W h at is the diagnosis? W hat are the differences between 1st. W h a t are the 5 basic criteria for metabolic syndrome? Burns 4. W h a t lab changes will be seen in a patient w ith hyperaldosteronemia? W h a t lab findings are diagnostic o f H ashim oto thyroiditis? W hat complications can arise from electrical burns?

W h a t is the Parkland burn formula? A patient presents w ith 2nd degree burns covering the anterior surfaces o f both arms. W h a t is the next step in the managem ent o f a patient th at has aspirated an object th at cannot be dislodged. A m ine worker is brought into the E R after an explosion occurred. W here is an aspirated object such as a penny m ost likely to end up? W h a t is the surface area o f the burn?

W h a t are the complications to watch for in a patient that has suffered an electrical bum? To w hat degree is this burn classified? W h a t pulm onary pathology should you be -watching for in a patient who had a saltw ater near-drowning episode? A year-old obese patient presents with dirty.

W hat is the appropriate treatment of hypertension in cases of pheochromocytoma? W h at is the classic presentation o f a patient w ith hyperprolactinemia? Bites and Stings 4. W hat is the treatment for a black widow spider bite? W hat is the treatment for a brown recluse spider bite? W h a t is the treatm ent for a skin laceration on the dorsum o f the hand that resulted from a closed fist hitting a victim s mouth?

W hat are the indications for a tetanus booster in an adult patient? W h a t E K G abnormality is classic for patients w ith hypothermia? A fter appropriate irrigation and cleansing. W h a t is the treatment for a black widow spider bite? W hat is the treatm ent for a dog or cat bite? W h at is the L D L goal in a patient with diabetes? W hat is the antidote? W h a t is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia?

W h a t method is used to calculate fluid repletion in burn patients? W hat are the potential consequences of acetaminophen overdose? Stage 1 30 min. W h a t cardiac medications are safe to treat the tachycardia and hypertension associated w ith cocaine overdose? W h a t are the signs and sym ptom s of cyanide ingestion? W orks well in conjunction with sodium thiosulfate End of Session Quiz 8.

W h a t medications are used in cases o f cyanide poisoning? W h a t is given to treat acetam inophen overdose? W h a t other uses does this m edication have? Prolonged PR interval. W h a t is the drug o f choice in the treatment of this patient s condition? W h a t kind o f tum or is the most common brain tumor? Lung cancer accompanied by muscle weakness is indicative o f what? W hat are the classic features of digoxin toxicity?

A patient on haloperidol develops fever. Tachypnea results from A SA stimulation of the medullary respiratory center. W hat are the characteristics of aspirin overdose? W hat is the treatm ent for methanol or ethylene glycol toxicity? W hat is the treatm ent of a patient that has an elevated IN R from excessive warfarin ingestion?

A t w hat point in a patient with an elevated IN R due to warfarin would you consider dosing vitam in K to reverse the warfarin? W h at are the antidotes to each o f the following toxins? How is this patient managed? ICU care to manage life-threatening complications mediastinitis. A schizophrenic patient comes to the E R for ingestion of alkali plumbing liquid. Endoscopy EGD to look for severity of injury. In which endocrine disorder m ight weight loss completely eliminate the need for medication?

W h a t is the m ost sensitive test for multiple sclerosis? Emesis and Excitation of skeletal muscle. Salivation and abdominal cramping. W hat are the signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisoning? Seizure risk is more likely in older patients. D uring the evaluation he begins to have seizures. W h a t is the treatment for lead poisoning in adults? W hat is the treatment in children? W h a t is the most likely etiology? W h a t are the antidotes to each o f the following toxins?

Arsenic m 73 Anticholinesterases. W h a t classic toxic ingestion management options should not be chosen in patients presenting w ith alkaline fluid ingestion? W h a t is the next step in the management o f a patient that presents to the E R w ith organophosphate poisoning? Labs show hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.

W h a t are the antidotes for each o f the following types o f overdose? Opioids Heparin Benzodiazepines Barbiturates phenobarbital Carbon monoxide 3.

W hile waiting for the EKG. A patient presents w ith weakness. W h a t is the treatment? W hat drugs are used in treating a stable. W hat is the treatm ent for supraventricular tachycardia SVT? W hat is the initial treatm ent for new atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate of unknown duration?

W hat is the maximum number of epinephrine doses that can be given when treating cardiac arrest? W h a t is the ACLS protocol for ventricular fibrillation?

W hat piece o f medical history should be obtained in deciding how to treat atrial fibrillation? In treating pulseless ventricular tachycardia. A n year-old m an is found to have a systolic heart m urm ur heard at the apex and left lower sternal border th at increases in intensity while standing after squatting.

W h a t are the antidotes to the following toxins? W h a t diagnosis do you suspect? W h a t is the clinical definition o f hypertension? W hich vasopressor matches each o f the following statements? Theoretically causes renal vasodilation High doses optimize the a t vasoconstriction A D H analogue Best choice for anaphylactic shock Best choice for septic shock Best choice for cardiogenic shock Causes vasoconstriction but with bradycardia 6.

W hich blood product is most appropriate in each of the following scenarios? Severe anemia due to autoimmune hemolytic anemia Hemophilia DIC Shock due to trauma or postpartum hemorrhage To maintain blood pressure during large volume paracentesis Hemorrhage due to warfarin overdose Need for vWF-rich blood product Thrombocytopenia 5. In a Swan-Ganz catheter pulmonary artery catheter.

Check pulse carotid. Cover with blanket to avoid hypothermia [ ]. W h a t side effects can arise from theophylline overdose?

W h a t is the classic E C G appearance in atrial flutter? Glasgow coma scale. Pulse-ox Bag ventilation if airway good. W h a t is the treatm ent for Kawasaki disease in the acute phase? Traum a Assessm ent 4. Neuro exam limited. W hat is the basic sequence of assessing a traum a patient? Start 0 2. Make sure 2 large bore IVs or a central line has been started. W hat are the classic physical findings in a basilar skull fracture?

Chem Last meal. This effect lasts less than a few hours and should only be used as a temporary measure. W hat interventions can be used to lower intracranial pressure in a head injury patient? Events of trauma Head-to-toe exam Examine back for wounds or spinal injuries Remove from backboard X-rays.

W hat is the treatm ent for anterior spinal cord syndrome following a traumatic injury? W h a t radiological study does he definitely need?

W hat are the symptoms of a basilar skull fracture? Keep spine stabilized. W h a t interventions are effective in the management o f elevated intracranial pressure? H e is able to move all o f his extremities on command.

Spinal Cord Traum a 8. Breathing and Circulation first. H e does not open his eyes or make any sounds. W h a t is his Glasgow coma score GCS? W h a t needs to be done? W hat are the different zones of the neck and structures contained in each zone? W h at is the next step in the evaluation o f a pulsatile abdominal mass and bruit?

W h at is the treatment for ventricular fibrillation? Neck Trauma 4. W hat is the treatm ent for a flail chest? W hat C X R findings might indicate a ruptured thoracic aorta?

Chest Traum a 5. W hat are the signs of tension pneumothorax? W hat is a flail chest. W hat are the next steps in the management of a patient with blunt abdominal traum a and unstable vital signs? W hat are the initial steps in the management of an abdominal stab wound presenting to the ER? Blood type and cross W hat are the next steps in the management of blunt abdominal traum a in a patient with stable vital signs?

W hat is the treatm ent for a retroperitoneal hematoma? W hat is the immediate treatm ent for a patient with a pelvic fracture? W h at is the next step in the evaluation o f the following patients? W h at additional studies can be performed in the case o f a stable patient w ith an abdominal stab wound that penetrated the peritoneum? W h a t would you find on physical exam o f a patient w ith pericardial effusion?

A patient is in the hospital and begins to have atrial fibrillation w ith RVR rapid ventricular rate. Common prophylactic regimens: This patient has had chronic atrial fib previously. W hat antibiotic prophylaxis should be provided for rape victims? W hat other prophylactic measures should also be taken? W h a t study has to be performed before the patient can be cardioverted? W h a t type o f immunodeficiency increases the risk o f anaphylactic transfusion reaction? Since bleeding between the fetus and m other is a concern in traum a.

W h a t should be done to evaluate an extremity trauma? W h a t studies are ordered to evaluate the cause o f a fever in a post-op patient? W h a t are the classical physical findings in cases o f endocarditis? W h at lab findings suggest hepatic disease during a pre-operative work-up? W hat interventions are helpful in optimizing lung function in the post-op period in patients with preexisting lung disease? W hich antidepressants are associated w ith hypertensive crisis? W h a t substance can exacerbate this effect?

W hen is the greatest risk for a post-operative M I? W h at is recommended perioperatively for patients with known CAD? W h a t EK G finding is associated w ith hypothermia? W h at is the typical E R lab work-up for a patient with acute abdominal pain?

W hat is the treatm ent for acute mesenteric ischemia? Dobutamine or dopamine if necessary. W h a t causes a continuous machine-like heart murmur?

W h a t would you suspect in an E R patient with blood in the urethral meatus or a high-riding prostate? W h a t are the tw o measures o f how severe the hypotension is in shock?

Resection of necrotic bowel and bypass. W hat are the signs and symptoms of acute mesenteric ischemia?

W h a t is the classic finding in the abdominal exam o f a patient w ith mesenteric ischemia? W hat are the treatment options for chronic mesenteric ischemia?

W h a t is the type o f rejection th at is treatable w ith immunosuppressive agents? W h a t is the m echanism o f this rejection?

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W ith in w hat tim e frame may it show up? W h at is seen on abdominal x-ray or C T scan that indicates a ruptured viscus? W h a t is the usual lab panel ordered in a patient presenting to the E R with generalized abdominal pain? In which phase o f the cardiac cycle do coronary arteries fill w ith blood? W h ich coronary artery is the most common site o f occlusion? W h a t overdose causes metabolic acidosis and retinal damage leading to blindness?

Categorize the following antipsychotics into the appropriate category as lowpotency neuroleptic. W h a t is the electrophysiological reason that a Q R S complex would become widened? Calculate her m ean arterial pressure. Stress testing is done as a screening test. W h at mineralocorticoid medication is used in the treatment o f aldosterone deficiencies such as adrenal insufficiency and hydroxylase deficiency? A burn patient presents with cherry-red flushed skin and coma. Otoscopy in a child presenting with acute onset o f ear pain reveals large reddish vesicles on the T M.

W h at is the treatment? Besides lowering LD L. I f angina or ischemia occurs with these tests.

Your patient is undergoing a treadmill stress test. W h a t key EKG finding would suggest myocardial ischemia during exercise? GI discomfort. Pick disease and Lewy body dementia?

A bipolar patient w ho is treated w ith a m ood stabilizer has concurrent depression. W h a t should you use to treat his depression?

W h a t are two key differences between somatization disorder and conversion disorder? W h a t are the differing presentations o f Alzheim er disease.

W h ich lipid-lowering agent matches each o f the following descriptions? Facial flushing SE: Elevated LFTs. How can the flushing reaction o f niacin be prevented? W hat is the most likely cause of chest pain in each of the following scenarios? A lesion to which area o f the brain is responsible for the following clinical scenarios? W here is the lesion? W hat medications are used in the treatment of Prinzmetal angina? H ow does nitroglycerin work acutely in a cardiac ischemic episode?

W h ich patients are more likely to have atypical angina or no angina during an episode o f myocardial ischemia? End of Session Quiz 6. W h y should relief o f chest pain with nitroglycerin administration not be used as a diagnostic test for whether or not the chest pain is cardiac in nature? W h a t is the difference between conduct disorder and antisocial personality disorder? IV Morphine decreases stress and cardiac oxygen demand. Supplemental 0 2 only if hypoxemia present. W h a t would you suspect to be the cause o f hyperthyroidism in a patient presenting with the symptoms o f hyperthyroidism in addition to the following findings?

W h a t is the difference between conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder? Caution in patients with COPD. Nitroglycerin decreases preload and BP. For very high risk patients recurrent ischemic discomfort. Unfractionated heparin to all patients undergoing PCI. Enoxaparin for patients not managed with PCI.

W h a t are the mechanisms o f action o f the following drugs? W h en should oxygen be used in a patient w ith suspect cardiac ischemia? W h a t is the benefit o f 3-blockers in patients w ith unstable angina? W h at are specific labs ordered in patients suspected o f having an M I? In what time frame do thrombolytics need to be given in an M I? H ow does this differ from the time frame in which they need to be given for a stroke?

W h at is the first-line treatment for a growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma? W h at is the most common cause o f death in patients w ith an acute myocardial infarction?

W hich medication types have a proven reduction in mortality following M I? W h at is the treatment for opioid overdose?

W h a t medications should all post-M I patients receive as outpatients? W hat is the classic presentation o f a patient w ith aspirin overdose? W h a t is the antidote to each o f the fallowing toxins? W h a t is the treatm ent far an M I due to a cocaine overdose? W h a t is the m ost likely diagnosis? A patient is found to have hypertension. W hich heart blocks need a pacemaker? W hat type o f heart block is described by the following statements? PR interval prolonged more than 0.

W hat is the drug o f choice in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia? W h ich antiarrhythm ic should be avoided in patients w ith preexisting lung disease? W h a t is the treatm ent for sustained ventricular tachycardia? In acute labyrinthitis.

Is the workbook more important than the videos? If ur doing it with the fisical books it's kind of hard since they go back and fawrd a lot but if ur doing it with the PDF version in a Tablet it makes it less hard: Are you done wtih DIT?

When's your exam? So my schedule for the next month it's going to be from 7am till 8am Pass Program Clues PP Clues then from 8am UWorld mixed block of 45 timed and review answers another Block of 45 timed day topic and review. After I finish those 2 blocks then I do one video of DR.

Lionel Raymon Integrated cases. Once the video is finished approximately 5h go over notes and the go to sleep: I haven't signed up for the exam yet. I saw a sample of Dr. Lionel R. You're only doing the clues of Pass programs not the entire course? Step 1. Step 2 CK. Step 2 CS.Calculate her m ean arterial pressure.

A teenager whose father died at age 30 in a motor vehicle accident suddenly collapses and dies while exercising. Headache IF 1G Neurology 5.

Introduction 1A IB Neurology 1. W hich commonly used antidepressant should be avoided in patients at risk for seizure? A patient with a D V T develops a stroke. W hat is the treatm ent of a patient that has an elevated IN R from excessive warfarin ingestion? Accidents and Injuries part 1 ER.